Thursday, June 24, 2010

True peshat in Petorah

Summary: A consideration of what makes true peshat according to Rashi, and according to his supercommentators. There is a difference, I think.

Post: Balak sends messengers to Petor. The Torah could record this is אל פתור or as פתורה.

5. He sent messengers to Balaam the son of Beor, to Pethor, which is by the river of the land of his people, to call for him, saying, "A people has come out of Egypt, and behold, they have covered the "eye" of the land, and they are stationed opposite me.ה. וַיִּשְׁלַח מַלְאָכִים אֶל בִּלְעָם בֶּן בְּעוֹר פְּתוֹרָה אֲשֶׁר עַל הַנָּהָר אֶרֶץ בְּנֵי עַמּוֹ לִקְרֹא לוֹ לֵאמֹר הִנֵּה עַם יָצָא מִמִּצְרַיִם הִנֵּה כִסָּה אֶת עֵין הָאָרֶץ וְהוּא יֹשֵׁב מִמֻּלִי:
We know that Petor is a place from which Bilaam came, because the pasuk in sefer Devarim states:

5. Because they did not greet you with bread and water on the way, when you left Egypt, and because he [the people of Moab] hired Balaam the son of Beor from Pethor in Aram Naharaim against you, to curse you.ה. עַל דְּבַר אֲשֶׁר לֹא קִדְּמוּ אֶתְכֶם בַּלֶּחֶם וּבַמַּיִם בַּדֶּרֶךְ בְּצֵאתְכֶם מִמִּצְרָיִם וַאֲשֶׁר שָׂכַר עָלֶיךָ אֶת בִּלְעָם בֶּן בְּעוֹר מִפְּתוֹר אֲרַם נַהֲרַיִם לְקַלְלֶךָּ:

And so, we understand that פתורה is the typical construction meaning אל פתור. As Ibn Ezra writes:
פתורה -כמו: מצרימה, אל פתור.

Rashi agrees to this as a matter of peshat, but first mentions a midrashic explanation:

to Pethor: Heb. פְּתוֹרָה, like this money changer, to whom everyone rushes coins, so did all the kings rush their letters to him [asking him for advice]. [In Aramaic, פְּתוֹרָא means table, denoting the counter over which currency transactions take place. This is synonymous with the Hebrew שֻׁלְחָן, table.Thus, a money changer is שֻלְחָנִי]. According to the simple meaning of the verse, it [Pethor] is a place-name. — [Mid. Tanchuma Balak 4, Num. Rabbah 20:7]פתורה: כשולחני הזה שהכל מריצין לו מעות, כך כל המלכים מריצין לו אגרותיהם. ולפי פשוטו של מקרא כך שם המקום:


The explanation in square brackets is provided by the Judaica Press translation. I would add that using Galilean Aramaic, rather than kametz aleph, they use the kametz heh ending for the definite article, and so it is not just a homonym, but also a homograph.

Rashi knows that peshat is that it is his city. Yet he likely brings down this midrashic explanation for some purpose. I would guess to set up the theme that Bilaam is a much-sought-after sorcerer. And so that is why kings are seeking after him, promising houses filled with silver and gold, and how Sichon sought Bilaam's help to defeat Moav. Early on, setting up the role and nature of the characters in the narrative is certainly a peshat concern, even if he cites derash (which is true but derived on a midrashic level) to establish it.

Midrash Tanchuma gives it as a choice between three interpretations:

וישלח מלאכים אל בלעם בן בעור פתורהפתורה, עירו.

ויש אומרים:
כשולחני היה, שהיו מלכי אומות העולם נמלכים בו, כשולחני הזה שהכל מריצין לו.

ויש אומרים:
מתחלה פותר חלומות היה.
חזר להיות קוסם, וחזר לרוח הקדש. 
Thus, first off peshat, that it is him city. Secondly, the shulchani whom everyone consults. And thirdly, to show his development from a poter chalomot -- interpreter of dreams; then to sorcerer, and finally to ruach hakodesh.

Midrash Rabba gives an identical three-way choice:
וישלח מלאכים אל בלעם בן בעור פתורה עירו היה.

ויש אומרים:
שולחני היה שהיו מלכי גויים נמלכים בו כשולחני שהכל מריצין לו.

ויש אומרים:

בתחילה פותר חלומות היה חזר להיות קוסם וחזר לרוח הקדש. 
I don't think Rashi could be clearer that the first thing he cited is not intended as peshat, in the sense of the necessary, simple meaning of the verse. Even if it is true and he is citing the midrash to give us insight into the character, a peshat concern.

Mizrachi does not really investigate this Rashi so much as the midrash mentioned by Rashi. If one position is that it is Bilaam's city, such that the heh ending indicates destination, while one position is that it is part of the name, such that it means everyone seeks Bilaam out; and if the former is the peshat and the latter is the derash, then Mizrachi does not know what they would do with the pasuk in sefer Devarim where it says מִפְּתוֹר, for without the heh ending, it is not the translation of "table". Only פתורא is that.

[Josh: I would interject at this point and say that this is not so. There is פתור, פתורה, פתורא, and פתורתא. See Shabbos 36a for a bit of it and its varied meanings. (Also, see Jastrow.) But for פתור without the final heh or aleph, see Targum Pseudo-Yonatan on Bereishit 23:16:
וקביל אברהם מן עפרון ותקל אברהם לעפרון ית כספא
דמליל באנפי בני חתאה ארבע מאה סלעין דכסף טב עברין בכל פתור
ומתקבלין בכל פרקמטיא

This means "acceptable at every money-changer's table". Clearly the heh ending is not required. Indeed, I would argue that -- as the Judaica Press had it, the heh ending is being used to indicate definite article.]

Back to discussing Mizrachi. He states a further objection that according to the midrash, פתורה needs to be an adjective describing Bilaam, as if it said "to Bilaam son of Beor, who is a Petora." But then in sefer Devarim, the mem of מִפְּתוֹר cannot allow it to be an adjective describing Bilaam, nor Aram Naharayim which comes after it.

And one cannot say that since it changed here to say פתורה rather than אל פתור they darshened it here -- [Josh: but not in sefer Devarim] for they themselves said in the first perek of Yevamot that any word which requires a ל in the beginning can instead have a ה at the end of it.

So ends Mizrachi's discussion, and he has no resolution. However, I would have propose a resolution. Firstly, perhaps they can remove the dagesh from מִפְּתוֹר and create some sort of noun pattern miftor with a similar sense. Secondly, I think Mizrachi was on to something when he said that only here would they darshen it but not there. Certainly this is how Rashi would take it, as an additional layer of interpretation, though of course Petor was also the name of his city.

Mizrachi operates under the false assumption that in order to make a derasha, there must be a real problem. Sometimes midrash works that way. But most often, it is a matter of exploring textual ambiguity as well as strange though perfectly acceptable grammatical structure. Petora instead of El-Petor is perfectly acceptable, but unexpected. That suggests a derasha, as an additional layer of interpretation here. And because of the Aramaism, as discussed in another post this year, and because of the theme of everyone seeking out Bilaam, the midrash suggested this here. Of course, in sefer Devarim, מִפְּתוֹר would maintain its usual peshat meaning, and there is no reason to make a derash.

I would note that in terms of the third suggestion in midrash, that of dream-interpreter, where the theme is development from that lowly state to that of sorcerer to that of ruach hakodesh, Targum Yonatan is consistent. It has in sefer Devarim, מן פתור חלמיא. Some suggest the last word is a gloss, but it need not be, as the point of the midrash is transition.

At any rate, within my methodology of understanding midrash, all of this is rather straightforward.

Let us examine another supercommentator of Rashi, Gur Aryeh:
כשולחני הזה וכו. הקשה הרא׳׳ם, אם
כן מה יעשו רז׳׳ל בפסוק

״ואשר שכר עליך את בלעם בן בעור
מפתור״, כי לפי מדרש רז״ל יהיה ״פתורה״
תואר אל בלעם, שהיו הכל מריצין לו
אגרותיהן אליו כשולחני הזה שהכל מריצין
אליו מעות ולא יתכן לפרש כן מ״ם של
״מפתור׳׳, ואם כן על כרחך אתה צריך
לפרש כי ״פתורה״ הוא שם המקום

Thus, Mizrachi's question. He answers

ואין זה
קשיא כלל על דברי חז״ל, כי נראה אלי
שנקרא העיר על שם בלעם שהיה שולחני,
לכך שם העיר ״פתורה״ על שם בלעם שהיה
בה, והוא כמו שולחני. ומה שאמרו רז״ל
״פתורה״ עירו היה, ויש בבמד״ר
אומרים שולחני היה, שהיו מלכי גוים נמלכים
בו , אין כוונתם שיהיה פירוש ״פתורה״
שולחני, שאינו כן, אלא פירוש שהיה בלעם
שולחני, ונקרא שם העיר על שם בלעם, שהיה
שולחני.

This is a rather radical reinterpretation of the midrash in Bamidbar Rabba -- and Tanchuma -- I would say. That the city was called that after Bilaam, and that Bilaam was a shulchani and the city was called Petora after him. Nothing in the midrash indicates this. But Gur Aryeh often reinterprets midrashim in these radical ways, creating novel midrashim. Meanwhile, from my perspective, no radical reinterpretation is needed.

He continues:

ואס תאמר, ולרז״ל שדרשו כך, מנא להו,
שמא הוא כפשוטו, דהוא שם המקום. ויש
לומר, דהוקשה לרז״ל דלמה לי למכתב כלל
״פתורה״, דמאי נפקא מיניה, אלא שנקרא
המקום ״פתורה״ על שם בלעם, שהיה בלעם
כמו שולחני שהכל מריצין לו אגרותיהן, והיה
נקרא שם העיר על שם בלעם שהיה שולחני.


That is, those who darshen it as referring to the profession of Bilaam and subsequently the name of the city, why not interpret it simply as the name of the city. The answer is that if so, why should the pasuk bother stating it at all?

That is, he approaches the midrash with the "What is Bothering Chazal" approach, that there must be some textual problem they are trying to solve. Yes, perhaps it is extra. So that could be the spark. But I think that the other features worked as impetus to the derasha as well.


וגם על דרך הפשט נראה לי, דעל כרחך
צריך אתה לומר דהכתוב בא לומר שמזכיר
שם המקום, לומר כי חשוב היה עד
שהמקום נחשב בשבילו, כי המקום נחשב
בשביל אדם חשוב שבו , ולפיכך אמר
הכתוב ׳׳וישלח מלאכים אל בלעם פתורה׳׳,
כלומר המקום אשר שם האדם, אשר הוא
נחשב בעיני הבריות. ומאחר כי פשט הכתוב
בא להזכיר המקום על שם חשיבות בלעם,
הוסיפו חכמים חכמה ודעת לומר כי בזאת
המלה עצמה נזכר חשיבות בלעם, כי היה כמו
השולחני שהכל מריצין לו אגרותיהן, ושם
העיר נקרא על שמו לגמרי, תהו תוספת
חכמה. וכן ״אשר שכר עליך את בלעם בן
בעור מפתור״, ולמה הוצרך הכתוב לומר
שהיה ״מפתור״, אם לא שהכתוב בא לומר כי
אף המקום נחשב בשביל בלעם וחשיבותו,
ומאחר שחשיבות המקום הוא בשביל בלעם,
דרשו שנקרא שם המקום ״פתורה״ על שם
השולחני. ומה שאמר (רש״י) ׳פשוטו שם
מקום׳ , רצה לומר שאין טעם למה נקרא
. ״פתורה״, כמו שאין טעם לשאר מקומות

That is, he wants to work this into peshat as well. Peshat is that it is mentioned because it is important, and important because of an important person in it. And Chazal extended this that Bilaam was the important person after whom it was named. Furthermore, by saying that as peshat it is the name of the city, he is saying that there is no need to explain why the city was called Petora, just as there was no need to explain the meaning of other cities.

All of this seems like even further stretches to me. On the level of peshat, it could have been a famous town, which the ancient Israelite audience would have recognized. And since Bilaam is fetched from there and returns there, it is not out-of-the-ordinary, on a peshat level, to mention the place name. Furthermore, he is assuming the place name was Petora, rather than Petor. How is he going to explain the place name as it occurs in sefer Devarim. Further, he brings Rashi in on his interpretation, such that Rashi of course agrees to his radical reinterpretation of the midrash, though Rashi never mentions it. And by saying that Peshat is that is is the name of the city, Rashi is relegating the derash that there need not be a name for the city; with the implication that in the first reason given, he was discussing a reason for a name for the city. Frankly, even if Gur Aryeh is right as to the meaning of the midrash, it is rather unlikely that Rashi would be mechaven to this, with no textual evidence in the midrash itself and no indication that Rashi explains it this way in Rashi's wording.

Finally, Gur Aryeh discusses the third option in the midrash, that it means dream-interpreter.
ויש מרז״ל דרשו  ״פתורה״ שהיה
בלעם פותר חלומות, ולבסוף חוזר להיות
קוסם* 3. גם כן נקרא שם המקום ״פתורה׳׳,
מפני שהיה בלעם פותר חלומות, נקרא שם
המקום ״פתורה׳׳, מקום שפותרים שם
חלומות.

He combines this as well, that the name of the city is Petora (rather than Petor) as a place where dreams are interpreted.

To be straight, I liked Mizrachi's questions better than Gur Aryeh's solutions. Mizrachi's questions were straightforward and much closer to the emes, while Gur Aryeh's answers are speculative and without strong basis, IMHO.

Posts so far for parshat Balak

2010
  1. Balak sources -- revamped, with more than 100 meforashim on the parasha and haftorah.
    a
  2. The land of whose peopleIbn Ezra vs. Mizrachi. And I suspect that neither one is right.
    a
  3. The spelling of כְּתוֹעֲפֹת -- Considering whether the Samaritan text bolsters one side of a masoretic dispute.
    a
  4. Why did Hashem get mad if He told him to goAccording to Rashi, Ibn Ezra, Ramban, and Ibn Caspi.
    a
  5. Petorah as Aramaism -- Rashi's midrashic explanation of Petora, and Aramaisms in general in parashat Balak.
    a

2009
  1. How did Moshe know of Bilaam's prophecies? -- and why we can include this section in the Torah.
  2. Balak sources -- links by perek and aliyah to an online Mikraos Gedolos, as well as to many meforshim on the parsha and haftara.
  3. Masorah on Balak -- at least some of it, namely how the word par and vayikar in parshat Balak uniquely gets a kamatz; and some other words with localized kemeitzim.
  4. Some interesting censored text on Balak in the commentary of Siftei Kohen now that the black-out has faded.
  5. How did one "join" to Baal Peor? Considering a suggestion that the act of intercourse was the worship of Baal Peor. Ultimately, I don't think so.
    a
  6. Why the war with Midian before Moshe's death? From Rav Yonasan Eibeshitz, that they should not think Moshe did not take revenge upon them on behalf of Klal Yisrael because he, too, was guilty.
2008
  1. Shadal's framing of parshat Balak, such as whether Bilaam was an idolator, his profession, whether he used trickery, whether and how he had prophecy, whether the donkey spoke, and why Hashem saw fit to turn the words in Bilaam's mouth into blessing.
  2. Further thoughts on the etnachta in the last pasuk of Balak, as a followup to the 2006 post. I messed this post up, though.
  3. Balak saw something, and therefore Moav was afraid -- as a midrash, as a Rashi, as Ibn Ezra reading Rashi's midrash as peshat.
2007
  1. Did Balak or Israel begin the hostilities?
    1. We get different perspectives from parshat Balak and parshat Devarim. It seems that conquering was disallowed, but minor raids were allowed.
  2. Bilaam Saddled His Donkey
    1. Either personally, or by command. And the implication of this.
  3. Midianites as a generic term
    1. which would resolve some confusion. Plus a tie in to the incident of the sale of Yosef.
  4. Why isn't Zimri mentioned by name?
    1. At least in parshas Balak?
  5. Holy Cow! A talking donkey?!
    1. Can a donkey speak? Shadal suggests that while Hashem is capable of anything, the reaction of Bilaam and his attendants suggests that it brayed in a different manner, and that Bilaam was adept at understanding animal speech. I make reference to Yerushalmi Berachot about Arabs capable of understanding animal speech.
  6. Some questions and thoughts on Balak
    1. questions which would arise from a surface reading of the parsha, which the commentators and midrashim set out to answer.
2006
  • Why the Etnachta in the last pasuk of Balak?
    • somewhat of an attack piece. There is an etnachta there because of the demands of trup, for the trup marks the primary division point of the pasuk. Yet in a longer pasuk which contains that phrase, there is no etnachta because the primary division point of the pasuk is elsewhere. Etnachta (together with other disjunctive accents) is not absolute, but rather relative to the phrase/subphrase structure. Yet someone asks this question, why an etnachta here but not there, apparently unaware of how the system of trup operates, and offers a silly answer to a silly question.
  • Blog Roundup
    • what other blogs are saying about parshat Balak.
  • Bilaam the flying soothsayer
    • from parshat Matot. All discussing how Bilaam flew.
2005
2004
  • The Land of the Children of His People
    • Considers the possibility that eretz benei ammo - "the land of the children of his people," which is taken as meaning that Balak sent to his homeland - is really eretz benei Ammon - the land of the benei Ammon, with the nun sofit relaxing, where benei Ammon were the decendants of ben Ami, and is the usual name for Ammon, just as Moav were the descendants of Moav.
  • וַיַּרְא בָּלָק - The Mapik Aleph
    • Cross-listed from parshat Ki Tisa, discusses a midrash that notices there is no mapik in the aleph (!!) of וַיַּרְא, and deduces that the word means "feared" rather than "saw"
to be continued...

Petorah as an Aramaism

Summary: Rashi's midrashic explanation of Petora, and Aramaisms in general in parashat Balak.

Post: Balak sends for Bilaam, to Petor:

5. He sent messengers to Balaam the son of Beor, to Pethor, which is by the river of the land of his people, to call for him, saying, "A people has come out of Egypt, and behold, they have covered the "eye" of the land, and they are stationed opposite me.ה. וַיִּשְׁלַח מַלְאָכִים אֶל בִּלְעָם בֶּן בְּעוֹר פְּתוֹרָה אֲשֶׁר עַל הַנָּהָר אֶרֶץ בְּנֵי עַמּוֹ לִקְרֹא לוֹ לֵאמֹר הִנֵּה עַם יָצָא מִמִּצְרַיִם הִנֵּה כִסָּה אֶת עֵין הָאָרֶץ וְהוּא יֹשֵׁב מִמֻּלִי:
As Rashi explains Petor:

to Pethor: Heb. פְּתוֹרָה, like this money changer, to whom everyone rushes coins, so did all the kings rush their letters to him [asking him for advice]. [In Aramaic, פְּתוֹרָא means table, denoting the counter over which currency transactions take place. This is synonymous with the Hebrew שֻׁלְחָן, table.Thus, a money changer is שֻלְחָנִי]. According to the simple meaning of the verse, it [Pethor] is a place-name. — [Mid. Tanchuma Balak 4, Num. Rabbah 20:7]פתורה: כשולחני הזה שהכל מריצין לו מעות, כך כל המלכים מריצין לו אגרותיהם. ולפי פשוטו של מקרא כך שם המקום:

There are presumably various reasons for interpreting "Petora" in this way, due to the slightly unusual kametz heh ending to indicate "to". But one possible input into the midrash is that Bilaam is located in Aram, and thus may use Aramaisms, and Aramaisms may be used in describing him and his actions.

Thus, for example, when Bilaam goes with his servants, the pasuk states  וּשְׁנֵי נְעָרָיו עִמּוֹ. But regarding the identical situation involving Avraham, the pasuk stated אתו. Minchas Shai claims that the difference in word choice is that עמו is more of an Aramaism.

So too, throughout the prophetic blessings, some scholars say:


All of this could well have influenced Chazal to see פתורה in an Aramaic light as well.

Wednesday, June 23, 2010

Why did Hashem get mad if He told him to go?!

Summary: According to Rashi, Ibn Ezra, Ramban, and Ibn Caspi.

Post: Bilaam consults Hashem twice before going, and the second time, Hashem tells him to go:

20. God came to Balaam at night and said to him, "If these men have come to call for you, arise and go with them, but the word I speak to you-that you shall do."כ. וַיָּבֹא אֱ־לֹהִים אֶל בִּלְעָם לַיְלָה וַיֹּאמֶר לוֹ אִם לִקְרֹא לְךָ בָּאוּ הָאֲנָשִׁים קוּם לֵךְ אִתָּם וְאַךְ אֶת הַדָּבָר אֲשֶׁר אֲדַבֵּר אֵלֶיךָ אֹתוֹ תַעֲשֶׂה:

and yet, in short order, Hashem is furious at him!

22. God's wrath flared because he was going, and an angel of the Lord stationed himself on the road to thwart him, and he was riding on his she-donkey, and his two servants were with him.כב. וַיִּחַר אַף אֱ־לֹהִים כִּי הוֹלֵךְ הוּא וַיִּתְיַצֵּב מַלְאַךְ יְ־הֹוָ־ה בַּדֶּרֶךְ לְשָׂטָן לוֹ וְהוּא רֹכֵב עַל אֲתֹנוֹ וּשְׁנֵי נְעָרָיו עִמּוֹ:


I think that Rashi does explain this:

If these men have come to call for you: If the calling is for you, and you expect payment for it, arise and go with them.אם לקרא לך: אם הקריאה שלך וסבור אתה ליטול עליה שכר, קום לך אתם:
but: In spite of yourself, “the word I speak to you-that you shall do.” Nevertheless, “Balaam went.” He said, Perhaps I can persuade Him and He will consent [to my cursing them].ואך: על כרחך את הדבר אשר אדבר אליך אותו תעשה, ואעפ"כ וילך בלעם, אמר שמא אפתנו ויתרצה:


On pasuk 20, it seems almost as if Hashem is passive-aggressive. If you think it is going to work out, fine, go. But you should know that you will not succeed in cursing. Bilaam should have accepted the Divine Will at this point, and not gone, hoping that somehow things will change. Yet Bilaam does not, and goes anyway. And so, Hashem is furious at him for the following reason:

because he was going: He saw that this was considered evil by the Omnipresent, yet he longed to go.כי הולך הוא: ראה שהדבר רע בעיני המקום ונתאוה לילך:


Ibn Ezra first cites Saadia Gaon and then gives his own interpretation:
[כב, יט]
בזה -
במקום הזה אמר הגאון ז"ל:







אם יטעון טוען ויאמר אחר שאמר השם: לא תלך עמהם איך אמר: קום לך אתם?! ש
יש להשיב: כי השם לא רצה שילך עם האנשים הראשונים, עד שיבואו שרים נכבדים מהם. 
ולפי דעתי: אין צורך, רק טעמו כטעם שלח לך אנשים כי השם אמר לישראל: עלה רש, והם לא האמינו, רק אמרו: נשלחה אנשים לפנינו, אז שאל משה את השם ואמר לו: שלח לך אנשים, ואחר שאמר השם לבלעם לא תאור את העם מה צורך היה לו לומר: ואדעה מה יוסף ה' דבר רק חשב בלבו מחשבה רעה והשם אמר לו: לך עם האנשים, רק השמר לך שלא תדבר רק מה שאומר לך, והעד על פירושי: ויחר אף אלהים כי הולך הוא.

Saadia Gaon discusses a different question, why Hashem seemed to change His mind between the first and second asking, and explained it as a change in circumstance. Hashem did not want him to go with the first group, but with the second group who were more important officials.

Ibn Ezra meanwhile compares it with the conflict between parashat Shelach and Devarim. In Shelach, Moshe is told by Hashem to send out men as scouts, but in Devarim he criticizes the Bnei Yisrael for asking this. The resolution is that the Bnei Yisrael initiated the request and Hashem acquiesced. That is, initially Hashem told them "Ascend and inherit." They didn't believe but asked to send men. Moshe consulted Hashem who told him "Send for yourself men." So too here, Hashem said initially to Bilaam "Do not curse the nation." If so, why when the officials came the second time did he need to say "And I will know what Hashem has to add." Rather, Bilaam thought in his heart an evil thought and Hashem told him "Go with the men, not watch that you only say what I tell you." The proof to this is that Hashem was furious with him after this.

Ramban writes at extreme length as to why he rejects the explanation of the Gaon and Ibn Ezra, Ibn Ezra because how could Hashem be furious at what he had expressly allowed. He identifies Bilaam's error / sin as not informing the princes immediately that he was going with them but that he would not curse. Also, there was this chillul Hashem in the implication that Hashem would change his mind like this, and perhaps when there was the blessing rather than the curse, it would be Hashem changing His mind once again.

Thus:
ויחר אף אלוהים כי הולך הוא (פסוק כב): - 


ראה שאין הדבר טוב בעיני המקום ונתאווה לילך, גם זה לשון הרב

ור"א כתב: 


אמר הגאון אם יטעון טוען ויאמר אחר שאמר לו לא תלך עימהם (פסוק יב): איך אמר לו קום לך אתם, יש להשיב כי השם לא רצה שילך עם הראשונים עד שיבואו שרים נכבדים מהם. 
ולפי דעתי אין צורך, כי טעמו כמו שלח לך אנשים (לעיל יג ב), כי השם אמר לישראל עלה רש (דברים א כא): והם לא האמינו רק אמרו (שם פסוק כב): נשלחה אנשים, אז שאל משה את השם. וכן זה, כי מה צורך היה לו לומר (פסוק יט): ואדעה מה יוסף ה' דבר עמי, רק חשב בלבו מחשבה רעה, והשם אמר לו לך אתם רק הישמר שלא תדבר רק מה שאומר לך, והעד על פירושי ויחר אף אלוהים כי הולך הוא, אלו דבריו.
וכל זה איננו שווה לי. כי מה שאמר הגאון, איננו כן, כי השם אמר לו (פסוק יב): לא תלך עימהם לא תיאור את העם כי ברוך הוא, בעבור שלא יקלל את העם ימנענו ואיך יהיה מותר לו ללכת עם שרים אחרים, ולא מנעו מלכת בעבור חסרון מעלת השרים.
ומה שאמר ר"א, איננו נכון שינחם האלוהים וישיב דברו אחור בעבור עקשות השואל, ועניין שלח לך אנשים לא כן היה, וכבר פירשתי טעמו (לעיל יג ב), ולא יעניש האלוהים בדבר אשר יתן רשות בו, וחלילה.

ובמדרש (במדב"ר כ יב): 


אמרו מכאן אתה למד שבדרך שאדם רוצה לילך בה מוליכין אותו:
והנכון בעיני בעניין הזה, כי מתחלה מנעו השם שלא יקלל את העם כי ברוך הוא, ולמה ילך עימהם אחרי שלא יקללם והם לא יחפצו בו לדבר אחר, על כן אמר לא תלך עימהם שלא תיאור את העם כי ברוך הוא, ובידוע כי בלעם הודיעם את דברי האלוהים. ובלק שלח אליו פעם שנית כי לא האמין, והוסיף לו כבוד בשרים רבים ונכבדים מן הראשונים ונדר להרבות שכרו וכבודו. ובלעם ענה אותם, שאין הדבר תלוי בממון ולא ברצונו, רק הכל ביד השם וישאל ממנו עוד מה יצווה אותו, ועשה זה כהוגן, כי מה ידע הוא בדעת עליון ועצת ה' לעולם טובה והוא יורה חטאים בדרך, ויודיענו מה יענה מלאכי גוי או יגיד לו מה יקרה להם בעתיד.

והנה השם אמר לו, כבר הודעתיך כי העם ברוך הוא ולא תוכל לקללם, ועתה חזרו לפניך, ואם לקרוא לך בלבד באו כלומר שיתרצו בלכתך עימהם על מנת שלא תקלל את העם כאשר הודעתיך מתחלה קום לך אתם, ואך את הדבר אשר אדבר אליך אותו תעשה, שאפילו אם אצווה אותך לברך שתברכם (לא): [ולא] תירא מבלק, וזה טעם"אם לקרא". וכן היה החפץ לשם הנכבד מתחלה שילך עימהם, אחרי הודיעו אותם שלא יקללם ושיתנהג בעניינם כאשר יצווה, כי הרצון לפניו יתברך שיברך את ישראל מפי נביא לגויים:

והנה היה על בלעם להגיד כן לשרי בלק ולאמר, הנה הרשה השם אותי להיות קרוא לכם בלבד, אבל על מנת שלא לקלל את העם ועל מנת שאם יצווה אותי לברך שאברכם, ואם לא יתרצו בכך יהיו מניחים אותו, כי גם בפעם הזאת השנית אמר בלק (פסוק יז): ולכה נא קבה לי את העם הזה, לא יחפוץ בו להודיעו עתידות ולא לדבר אחר זולתי לקוב את העם. והנה בלעם מרוב חפצו ללכת לא הודיעם זה ולא אמר להם כלום, ויקם בבקר ויחבוש את אתונו וילך עימהם כרוצה להשלים חפצם, על כן חרה אף ה' כי הולך הוא שאלו הודיעם לא היה הולך. ועוד שהיה בזה חלול ה', כי בלכתו עימהם סתם והוא ברשות השם חשבו שנתן לו רשות לקלל להם את העם, והנה חזר בו ממה שאמר תחלה "לא תיאור את העם כי ברוך הוא" כפי מה שהגיד להם, וכאשר יראו עוד שלא יקללם, יאמרו כי אחרי כן נמלך עוד או יהתל בהם כהתל באנוש, חלילה לה' מעשות כדבר הזה כי נצח ישראל לא ינחם:

Ibn Caspi also is bothered with, and resolves, the issue of why Hashem would be furious with him after telling him to go, and concludes that Hashem never told him to go! Thus:

ויחר אף אלהים כי הולך הוא. נפשנו קצה באריכות
קדמוני המפרשים, ואומר כי התבאר בספרי הפלופופים ויותר בספר
ההטעאה, כי הדבור האחד יש לו הוראות מתנגדות, מצד הערת
המדבר אם ברצוי אם בהפכו, ורבים כן בכל המקרא כמיש עד"מ מי
האומר שאול ימלוך עלינו (ש"א י"א י״ב), ולכן נאמר מפי סופרים ולא
מסי ספרים, לכן אע"פ שאמר השם לבלע ם קודם לך אתם ,
היתה צורת הדבור בצאתו מפיו דרך כעס והעדר הרצוי, והעד ויחר
אף אלהים כי הולך הוא

That is, any statement can be transformed into the reverse with the right emphasis, which is why plain text is not as informative as heard speech. The famous illustration of this is the Jewish joke about the Trotsky telegram:


Sure, Hashem said those words. But with the right emphasis, it was rhetorical, or else spoken in anger. And the proof is that Hashem is furious about it afterwards. He points us to I Shmuel 11:12:

יב  וַיֹּאמֶר הָעָם, אֶל-שְׁמוּאֵל, מִי הָאֹמֵר, שָׁאוּל יִמְלֹךְ עָלֵינוּ:  תְּנוּ הָאֲנָשִׁים, וּנְמִיתֵם.12 And the people said unto Samuel: 'Who is he that said: Shall Saul reign over us? bring the men, that we may put them to death.'


These four approaches do seem like straightforward ways of resolving what is otherwise clearly a conflict. I am not convinced entirely that כי הולך הוא fits in so well with Ramban's peshat. And Ibn Caspi's approach is perhaps too powerful, as one can nullify any troublesome pasuk in this matter. "Shalt thou not kill?!" I lean towards a mixture of Rashi and Ibn Ezra as most likely.

Anisakis worms are disgusting! From Ravina to Rav Moshe

A separate concern from any of those popularly raised regarding anisakis worms in fish may well be the issur of making oneself abominable by doing or eating abominable things. Thus, the pasuk in Vayikra 11 reads:

43. You shall not make yourselves abominable with any creeping creature that creeps, and you shall not defile yourselves with them, that you should become unclean through them.מג. אַל תְּשַׁקְּצוּ אֶת נַפְשֹׁתֵיכֶם בְּכָל הַשֶּׁרֶץ הַשֹּׁרֵץ וְלֹא תִטַּמְּאוּ בָּהֶם וְנִטְמֵתֶם בָּם:

or in Vayikra 20:

25. And you shall distinguish between clean animals and unclean ones, and between unclean birds and clean ones; thus you shall not make yourselves disgusting through [unclean] animals and birds and any [creature] which crawls on the earth, that I have distinguished for you to render unclean.כה. וְהִבְדַּלְתֶּם בֵּין הַבְּהֵמָה הַטְּהֹרָה לַטְּמֵאָה וּבֵין הָעוֹף הַטָּמֵא לַטָּהֹר וְלֹא תְשַׁקְּצוּ אֶת נַפְשֹׁתֵיכֶם בַּבְּהֵמָה וּבָעוֹף וּבְכֹל אֲשֶׁר תִּרְמֹשׂ הָאֲדָמָה אֲשֶׁר הִבְדַּלְתִּי לָכֶם לְטַמֵּא:


And as we learned a few days ago in daf Yomi, in Makkot 16, this includes doing disgusting things. Thus:
אמר רב אחאי המשהה את נקביו עובר משום  (ויקרא כ, כה) לא תשקצו 
אמר רב ביבי בר אביי האי מאן דשתי בקרנא דאומנא קא עבר משום לא תשקצו

Or in English:


(Rav Achai): If one urgently needs to excrete and holds it in, he transgresses "v'Lo Seshaktzu (do not make yourselves detestable)";
(Rav Bivi bar Abaye): If one drinks from a bloodletter's vessel (which is disgusting), he transgresses "v'Lo Seshaktzu." 

As Rambam puts it at the end of hilchot maachalot assurot, perek 17:
כו  [כט] וְאָסְרוּ חֲכָמִים מַאֲכָלוֹת וּמַשְׁקִין שֶׁנֶּפֶשׁ רֹב בְּנֵי אָדָם קֵהָה מֵהֶן, כְּגוֹן מַאֲכָלוֹת וּמַשְׁקִין שֶׁנִּתְעָרַב בָּהֶן קִיא אוֹ צוֹאָה וְלֵחָה סְרוּחָה וְכַיּוֹצֶא בָּהֶן; וְכֵן אָסְרוּ לֶאֱכֹל וְלִשְׁתּוֹת בְּכֵלִים הַצּוֹאִים שֶׁנַּפְשׁוֹ שֶׁלָּאָדָם מִתְאוֹנֵנָה מֵהֶן, כְּגוֹן כְּלֵי בֵּית הַכִּסֵּא וּכְלֵי זְכוֹכִית שֶׁלְּסַפָּרִין שֶׁגּוֹרְעִין בָּהֶן אֶת הַדָּם וְכַיּוֹצֶא בָּהֶן; [ל] וְכֵן לֶאֱכֹל בְּיָדַיִם מְזֹהָמוֹת, וְעַל גַּבֵּי כֵּלִים מְלֻכְלָכִים:  שֶׁכָּל דְּבָרִים אֵלּוּ, בִּכְלַל "אַל-תְּשַׁקְּצוּ, אֶת-נַפְשֹׁתֵיכֶם" (ויקרא יא,מג).  וְהָאוֹכֵל מַאֲכָלוֹת אֵלּוּ, מַכִּין אוֹתוֹ מַכַּת מַרְדּוּת.

Thus (roughly), "The Sages prohibited foods and drinks which the spirit of most people recoils from, such as food and drink in which is mixed vomit, excrement, odious phlegm, and the like. And so too the prohibited to eat and drink from fouled vessels which the spirit of a person recoils from, such as a chamberpot or glass cups of barbers which which they let blood and the like, and so too to eat with fouled hands, or on dirty dishes, for all these things are included in 'Thou shalt not my thy souls abominable'. And one who eats these foods, they lash him lashes of mardus {rebellion}."

Even if the anisakis worms are entirely muttar, most people nowadays would find them disgusting to eat. Indeed, because they are mius, their exuded material is more easily nullified (and perhaps berya is cancelled according to some poskim). Even back in Talmudic times, I would guess that they would find them disgusting. And indeed, the peshat of the pesukim in question, from which this stands, discusses sheratzim. This may well be cultural, but that is the nature of the prohibition. So even the muttar worms, how can we eat them?

To illustrate this, take a look at this video of rabbis extracting anisakis worms from fish:


As E-man wrote in a comment on an earlier post:
Thanks for your insights. Honestly, I would never want to eat wild salmon or any other fish that might have these worms because I saw this video http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=TTyxnO7uMpo and almost threw up.
Disgust does not necessarily mean prohibition (and E-man wasn't trying to suggest so), but I wonder if it might, at least in our generation.

This disgust and inclination to throw up is not a new thing. In the gemara discussing how anisakis worms underneath the skin of the fish are entirely permitted, on Chullin 67a:

אמר לה רבינא לאימיה אבלע לי ואנא איכול
"Ravina asked his mother to mix fish worms with his fish, so he would eat them without seeing them."

Why should she mix them together? As Rashi explains:
אבלע לי - דכוורי בתוך הדגים תני אותם שלא אראה ואקוץ בם:

So that he shouldn't see them and feel sick.

The gemara might just be using this as a demonstration that such worms are entirely muttar and that this Amora indeed ate them. But I wonder if there was some halachic reasoning in the mix, that if they disgusted him, he would not only not eat them as personal preference but because of בל תשקצו... Regardless, even though eating whole worms is disgusting, he did not mind them mixed in, where he could not really see them.

It is not just Ravina. In more modern times, Rav Moshe Feinstein explicitly permitted anisakis worms, without going into contortions of why they should be muttar. Simply put, these are the worms which Chazal permitted. I saw the following comment in a fish-worm post at Matzav:
Rabbi Eidelman from MTJ said that he was once sitting next to R Moshe and they were eating fish and R Moshe pulled out a worm from the fish and told R Eidelman that that is the worm from the shulchan aruch and kept on eating. So R Moshe also holds that fish does not require checking.
Presumably Rav Moshe did not eat the worm that he had just extracted, even though it would be muttar. I wonder whether he was slightly disgusted by the idea of eating possibly wormy fish, but ate it anyway so that people should not take his not eating it as a maaseh rav.

The facts of the matter is that much of our food and environment is not pristine in this way. We inhale dust mites:

As we learn in Berachot:
תניא אבא בנימין אומר אלמלי נתנה רשות לעין לראות אין כל בריה יכולה לעמוד מפני המזיקין אמר אביי אינהו נפישי מינן וקיימי עלן כי כסלא לאוגיא אמר רב הונא כל חד וחד מינן אלפא משמאליה ורבבתא מימיניה

It has been taught:
Abba Benjamin says, If the eye had the power to see them, no creature could endure the Mazikin.
Abaye says: They are more numerous than we are and they surround us like the ridge round a field.
R. Huna says: Every one among us has a thousand on his left and ten thousand on his right. [Psalm 91:7]
Some estimates put the amount of bug matter consumed by a person in a year on average to be one and two pounds. And yet people don't think about it. And perhaps we can wrap our minds around it by thinking that we don't know for certain that it is there in this particular fish, and even if it (the anisakis worm or part of it) is there, it is kosher, and is "meat" just like any other meat that the Torah permits.

Note: This is meant as a mere exploration of the issues, not halacha lemaaseh. Consult your local Orthodox rabbi.

The spelling of כְּתוֹעֲפֹת

Summary: Considering whether the Samaritan text bolsters one side of a masoretic dispute.

Post: From Bilaam's blessing:


ח  אֵל מוֹצִיאוֹ מִמִּצְרַיִם, כְּתוֹעֲפֹת רְאֵם לוֹ; יֹאכַל גּוֹיִם צָרָיו, וְעַצְמֹתֵיהֶם יְגָרֵם--וְחִצָּיו יִמְחָץ.8 God who brought him forth out of Egypt is for him like the lofty horns of the wild-ox; he shall eat up the nations that are his adversaries, and shall break their bones in pieces, and pierce them through with his arrows.


A short note. Minchas Shai records a machlokes as to whether that first vav should be there:

I would point out that Vetus Testamentum gives the Samaritan text as chaser, which would be significant as it runs counter to the prevailing Samaritan pattern of emending such words to indicate the em hakriah:

However, looking at the variants, there are sufficient Rabbinic and Samaritan variants in the malei / chaser of this word that this does not seem to be significant after all. See inside.

Tuesday, June 22, 2010

Interesting Posts and Articles #264

  1. In Hamodia, Rabbi Ari Zivotofsky about Glatt Kosher eggs.
    a
  2. How in the 1950's, Mickey Mouse did speed, and was a meth-amphetamine dealer in Africa. Seriously.
    a
  3. An IPhone App, Zmanim Clock, counts hours by שעות זמניות, based on your GPS coordinates.
    a
  4. At Hirhurim, a segulah for a toothache, of saying something special in kiddush levanah. You need to say it at precisely 2:30, though.
    a
  5. And a teshuvah to be mattir anisakis worms in fish, such that you need not inspect and extract them from each piece, by Rabbi Padwa.
    a
  6. The excitement about the apocalyptic BP oil spil predicted in the Talmud continues. See VidYid and AJNWatch mention it. I explain why I don't think the gemara is talking about this, here.
    a
  7. Whether the disagreement in Emanuel was discrimination against Sefardim or simply a matter of educating kids in the proper hashkafic environment, I think that the Israeli Supreme Court was on the mark in seeing contempt of court in attempts to circumvent the court's ruling. We, living in galus, are used to the idea that the government makes rule, and you can like it or lump it, but you must abide by it. Yet I think that in general, in dismissing the legitimacy of the Zionist enterprise, and by extension, the legitimacy of the state, chareidim in Israel in general do not think that the state has any say, and that rabbis can and regularly will "overrule" them. A few examples just from the past few days -- threats to not just demonstrate but violently riot if the mothers are jailed. And illegal construction of apartments in Yerushalayim, followed by riots as a result of the police raid on said apartment. And Chareidim stoning the van of two women coming to Meah Shearim for a brachah, because of a bumper sticker of Electra on the back of the van.
    a
  8. The latest Havel Havalim, at Frume Sarah.
    a
  9. Here at Parshablog, a source roundup for Balak.

The land of *whose* people??

Summary: Ibn Ezra vs. Mizrachi. And I suspect that neither one is right.

Post: At the start of Balak, Balak sends for Bilaam:

5. He sent messengers to Balaam the son of Beor, to Pethor, which is by the river of the land of his people, to call for him, saying, "A people has come out of Egypt, and behold, they have covered the "eye" of the land, and they are stationed opposite me.ה. וַיִּשְׁלַח מַלְאָכִים אֶל בִּלְעָם בֶּן בְּעוֹר פְּתוֹרָה אֲשֶׁר עַל הַנָּהָר אֶרֶץ בְּנֵי עַמּוֹ לִקְרֹא לוֹ לֵאמֹר הִנֵּה עַם יָצָא מִמִּצְרַיִם הִנֵּה כִסָּה אֶת עֵין הָאָרֶץ וְהוּא יֹשֵׁב מִמֻּלִי:

Rashi explains, based on Midrashim, that in "the land of his people", "his" refers to Balak:

the land of his people: [I.e.,] Balak’s [people]. He came from there. This one [Balaam] prophesied, telling him, “You are destined to rule.” If you ask, “Why did God bestow His Shechinah on a wicked gentile?” [The answer is] so the nations should not have an excuse to say, “Had we had prophets we would have repented.” So He assigned them prophets, but they breached the [morally] accepted barrier, for at first they had refrained from immorality, but he [Balaam] advised them to offer themselves freely for prostitution. — [Mid. Tanchuma Balak 1, Num. Rabbah 20:1]ארץ בני עמו: של בלק. משם היה, וזה היה מתנבא ואומר לו עתיד אתה למלוך. ואם תאמר מפני מה השרה הקב"ה שכינתו על גוי רשע, כדי שלא יהא פתחון פה לאומות לומר אלו היו לנו נביאים חזרנו למוטב, העמיד להם נביאים והם פרצו גדר העולם, שבתחלה היו גדורים בעריות וזה נתן להם עצה להפקיר עצמן לזנות:


Thus Balak is not initially from Moav. Thus Bemidbar Rabba:

ארץ בני עמו שמשם היה בלק והוא אמר לו שסופו למלוך. 


So too Midrash Tanchuma:
ארץ בני עמו שמשם היה בלק (כשנמלך), והוא אמר: שסופך למלוך.

To demonstrate that this need not be purely midrashic, I will note that Rashbam says the same:
ארץ בני עמו - של בלק. 

Ibn Ezra  writes on this:
ארץ בני עמו -והם ארמים.
וכן מפתור ארם נהרים.

ובדרש:
שבלעם הוא בלע, כי זה ארמי ואם בעבור בעור אביו, הנה בן אחשורוש קודם אחשורוש, רק הם שנים.
The first part it just to establish what is ambiguous, what land it is, namely Aram. In the second part, he dismisses the midrashic identification (made in Targum Pseudo-Yonatan) of Bilaam ben Beor the sorcerer with Bela ben Beor king of Edom. After all, "Bnei Amo" shows that this land, Aram, is his {= Bilaam's} land. And so how would he be the king of Edom, an Edomite?

Avi Ezer, a supercommentator of Ibn Ezra, says שרא ליה מריה and refers us to the supercommentary of Mizrachi on Rashi:

Basically, he gives the reason for Midrash Rabba (and Tanchuma) that why should we mention eretz bnei amo -- after all, the simple assumption is that any resident of a country was born there. Further, he is astonished at Ibn Ezra for arguing on the midrash, for by contrasting Bilaam the Aramean with Bela the Edomite, he is arguing on the (Tanchuma and) Bemidbar Rabba's explanation of עמו as referring to Balak! And furthermore, who revealed to Ibn Ezra the truth such that he will argue with a midrash?!

I don't think that Ibn Ezra would be bothered by such trumpeting. Of course he can argue on midrash when it comes to peshat. I would point out that the midrashic explanation rooted on Arami Oved Avi, brought down by Targum Yonatan, that Bilaam is really Lavan, is predicated on Bilaam being from Aram, and thus an Aramean, presumably is based in part on this Eretz Bnei Amo as Bilaam's land.

The midrash interpreted it as Balak's land because there was an ambiguity which called out darsheni, and so they chose the less obvious yet available interpretation. Further, it solves various other problems as to Balak and his role as now-king of Moav. That the midrash develops a general picture made out of particular interpretations of pesukim does not mean, however, that medieval parshanim must subscribe to that midrashic interpretation, as a religious matter.

Also, the radical Ibn Ezra is an easy target. Would Avi Ezer say שרא ליה מריה, and would Mizrachi be so ready to criticize Ramban? For Ramban explicitly says the same, as a matter of peshat:
ה): ארץ בני עמו - 
של בלק. משם היה, וזה היה מתנבא ואומר לו עתיד אתה למלוך, לשון רש"י מדברי אגדה (במדב"ר כ ז). ש
ופשוטו, ארץ בני עמו של בלעם, כי שם נולד ושם יחוסו. והטעם להזכיר כן, מפני שהיה קוסם מן הארץ שכל עמה קוסמים, כעניין שכתוב (ישעיה ב ו): כי מלאו מקדם ועוננים כפלשתים:

And the Netziv is frum, and yet agrees with Ramban (and thus Ibn Ezra) on this.

Despite all this, I suspect that neither the midrash nor Ibn Ezra are correct in interpreting eretz bnei amo, as a matter of peshat. Rather, I still maintain what I suggested a while back at some length, rather than עמו, we should understand it as עמון, the land of Bnei Ammon. That is the land of Ammon, as Ammon took its name from the boy called Ben-Ammi.

Anyway, I just noticed that the Samaritan Torah has the same -- they change עמו to עמון:

Not that I think that the text is correct. However, it does show that way back when, some people were looking at the text and thinking Ammon for Ammo, such that a scribe "corrected" the text to match this understanding.

Monday, June 21, 2010

Are Anisakis worms muttar because of safek berya?

The real reason anisakis worms are muttar is because they are. But here is another analysis, by which perhaps they should be muttar -- but maybe not.

Since anisakis worms are not readily recognizable in the flesh of fish without a powerful light, or in the case of red-colored fish, a UV-light, they are not nikkar. Even so, they are a complete non-kosher entity where a part of it is considered a part of the whole, and so the whole anisakis worm is considered a berya. In terms of bliyot, they are mius, and are certainly batel given the amount of surrounding fish. But in terms of the worm itself, it is not batel because it is a berya, and even in 1000 X it is not batel. This din of berya is discussed in Yoreh Deah siman 100.

However, as the Taz discusses, and as Aruch Hashulchan brings down as pashut, this idea that it is not nullified even in one thousand times the amount (rather than mere taste or 60X) is a din derabanan. And there are implications. To cite him inside:



The idea of the importance of items such that they are not nullified is a Rabbinic law. For since, Biblically, there is this importance such that we lash on its consumption even when it is less than an olive's measure, for it is plainly (setama) written regarding impure species that you should not eat them, even if they are small, therefore the Rabbis were stringent regarding mixtures of them. However, Biblically, they are nullified just as other prohibited items. And the practical distinction here is in terms of a case of doubt if it is a berya or not, it is a case of Rabbinic doubt, and it is nullified. And so too all the things about which we say in future text that they are not nullified, such as rauy lehitkabed or davar shebiminyan. However, if it is certainly a berya, or one of these which are not nullified, but rather the prohibition is a doubt, in this even in 1000 they are not nullified. Such as eggs of something which might have been a treifah, and the like. And so writes the Issur beHetter, Klal 25, law 7.

If so, an opportunity to be mattir these has opened and then swiftly shut. We might have said that berya is a din deRabbanan, and so in any case of safeik, it is a safeik deRabbanan and it is lekulah. But while Taz indeed indicates that it is a din deRabbanan, he says that they did not establish it like that. Rather, if there is doubt whether the berya is present in the first place, then it is a safeik whether the Rabbinic law of berya not batel goes into effect, and so safeik deRabbanan lekulah. But once the entity exists as a complete entity, even if there is a doubt as to its prohibited state, Chazal would indeed apply this rule that it is not batel since it is an entity, and the origin safek deOrayta stands. Thus, it would be assur.

What about by anisakis? There are two sefeikos we can posit. The first is whether it is in the fish, or in any given piece of fish. This would be the first type of safek mentioned by the Taz, whether the berya is present. I suppose that the osrim could or do counter that in wild salmon and the like, it is so prevalent that there is no safeik. I am not certain about this -- in any slice of fish before me, I would guess that there is indeed a safeik.

The second safeik we can posit regarding anisakis is whether they are assur in the first place. Everyone now agrees that the worms in the flesh come from the belly. The worms in the belly are assur misafek, because maybe they came from the outside, or maybe they hatched from eggs inside the fish. This is the understanding of Beis Yosef and Pri Megadim regarding the worm in the belly. Rav Belsky asserts that worms in the flesh must have come from eggs that hatched in the belly, such that worms in flesh are vadai muttar -- and that was what Chazal meant. The osrim must hold that they have the same status as worms in the belly, and so are assur misafek. If so, perhaps this is safek berya and is nullified? It would seem that we cannot say this, for the safek deOraysa applies to the issur, but there is no safeik whether they are berya! Thus, Taz ruled this out.

I will try a more novel approach to make this not berya. There are different ways of understanding berya, that of Rosh and that of Ran. Both are brought lehalacha in Shulchan Aruch. According to Ran, it is not a berya unless the issur applied mitchilat beriyato, from the moment of its creation. So, for example, a non-kosher bird is a berya, but a kosher bird which became a neveilah is not. These tolaim, these anisakis worms, are assur misafek in the belly. Why are they assur? Because maybe they were shoretz al pnei hamayim, or maybe they were internally generated.

Assuming that Chazal and Rishonim understood them to be spontaneously generated, then they initially were regular sheratzim which had not yet been shoretz, but subsequently they moved from one fish to the next and were indeed shoretz. Thus, in their initial state they were muttar and only later were they assur. How can they be berya?!

Assuming that we are operating via external vs. internal generation / hatching, then I would guess that they are saying in this case that maybe the anisakis eggs hatched inside the water (rather than the other fish species), and were swallowed as larvae. If so, they were shoretz in the water. And presumably they were shoretz in this manner rather immediately, once they emerged from the egg. Perhaps we can make the argument that for the one instant, they were not. Or we can say that that some are shoretz later reveals this aspect to be an extrinsic rather than intrinsic factor. It is a sheretz, yes. But there is a sheretz which has not yet been shoretz and a sheretz which has already been shoretz. As such, maybe we can argue that it is not a berya! (Certainly, we should be able to say it is not a berya for something that was initially entirely muttar for a while, and only later escaped and was shoretz on the water.)

The major problem with this is that while it works well with the theory of the Ran as I understand it, it seems to be against an explicit Mishna. In Makkot 13a, which we learned a few days ago in daf yomi, the Mishna discusses berya, in terms of being liable for eating a small amount, less than a kezayis. (This is the explicit statement regarding berya, whereas that it is not nullified even in 1000 I think comes implicitly from the relevant sugya.) And the example is אוכל נמלה, eating an ant, which Rashi explains is assur because of sheretz hashoretz al haaretz. Maybe they operated under a correct presumption that all ants are shoretz on the aretz from birth, as opposed to the anisakis worm, where it depends on the stage of development and pace of development? Perhaps, even so, this chiddush is somewhat difficult to say.

Also, even if we do say it is not berya and therefore would be batel, this is presumably only if it is not nikkar. I think it is not nikkar if we need a very bright light to spot them, or a UV light in the case of red-colored fish. But maybe the osrim would disagree with that assessment.

I should note that even if we say it is berya, there is still a reason to be lenient. From a purely Biblical perspective, it was batel. Only Rabbinically is it not. And the same Rabbis who said that it was not also said that these particular worms in the flesh are muttar. (I made a similar argument in the past regarding the safek whether they were present and the safek whether they crawled, under a disputable view that safek deOraysa lechumra is a din deRabbanan. But here this seems to clearly be a din deRabbanan.) So I am solid in terms of Chazal. And even if I am not, so I am violating a din deRabbanan when there are major Rabbonim such as Rav Belsky who give straightforward reasons to be mattir besides this; and where all generations, from Moshe Rabbenu to Rav Moshe all ate this fish and believed it to be muttar. And I am countering an unfortunate trend to go looking for reasons to prohibit everything by selectively applying scientific discoveries and wish that the Torah was given to malachei hashareit. I am OK with possibly violating a deRabbanan given all these (and other) factors.

Note: Not intended halacha lemaaseh. Consult your local Orthodox rabbi.

LinkWithin

Blog Widget by LinkWithin