Showing posts with label mechilta. Show all posts
Showing posts with label mechilta. Show all posts

Friday, February 10, 2012

Who's the man? Moshe's the man!

Summary: But why not Yisro, who is called HaIsh is Shemos? And why not another prooftext local to sefer Shemot? The Chasam Sofer answers that it really was a function of Moshe's humility (mentioned in the continuation of the prooftext). Plus my own suggestion.

Post: At the start of parashas Yisro, the following pasuk and Rashi:

7. So Moses went out toward Jethro, prostrated himself and kissed him, and they greeted one another, and they entered the tent.ז. וַיֵּצֵא מֹשֶׁה לִקְרַאת חֹתְנוֹ וַיִּשְׁתַּחוּ וַיִּשַּׁק לוֹ וַיִּשְׁאֲלוּ אִישׁ לְרֵעֵהוּ לְשָׁלוֹם וַיָּבֹאוּ הָאֹהֱלָה:

prostrated himself and kissed him: I do not know who prostrated himself to whom. [But] when it says, “one another (אִישׁ לְרֵעֵהוּ),” [lit., a man to his friend,] who is called "a man"? This is Moses, as it is said: “But the man (וְהָאִישׁ) Moses” (Num. 12:3). [from Mechilta]וישתחו וישק לו: איני יודע מי השתחוה למי, כשהוא אומר איש לרעהו, מי הקרוי איש, זה משה, שנאמר (במדבר יב ג) והאיש משה:


After citing this pasuk and Rashi, the Chasam Sofer writes:

"So is it in the Mechilta. And in Nachalas Yaakov it asks that behold, we find that Yisro as well is called ish, as is stated {in parashat Shemot, in Shemot 2:21}: וַיּוֹאֶל מֹשֶׁה לָשֶׁבֶת אֶת הָאִישׁ וַיִּתֵּן אֶת צִפֹּרָה בִתּוֹ לְמֹשֶׁה, "Moses consented to stay with the man, and he gave his daughter Zipporah to Moses." 


Further, there is to analyze. Why did he not bring an earlier pasuk to that one {namely, the one in Sefer Bamidbar 12:3}, namely the one in parashat Ki Tisa {Shemot 32:23}, that is is written, וַיַּרְא הָעָם כִּי בֹשֵׁשׁ מֹשֶׁה לָרֶדֶת מִן הָהָר וַיִּקָּהֵל הָעָם עַל אַהֲרֹן וַיֹּאמְרוּ אֵלָיו קוּם עֲשֵׂה לָנוּ אֱ־לֹהִים אֲשֶׁר יֵלְכוּ לְפָנֵינוּ כִּי זֶה מֹשֶׁה הָאִישׁ אֲשֶׁר הֶעֱלָנוּ מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם לֹא יָדַעְנוּ מֶה הָיָה לוֹ,  "When the people saw that Moses was late in coming down from the mountain, the people gathered against Aaron, and they said to him: "Come on! Make us gods that will go before us, because this man Moses, who brought us up from the land of Egypt we don't know what has become of him." "


And there is to say behold, it is a question in the gemara in Kiddushin 33b, 'his son who is his teacher, should his father stand before him.' And the same in reverse, 'should he stand for his father'?

{That gemara is:
The scholars propounded: What if his son is his teacher? Must he rise before his father? — Come and hear: For Samuel said to Rab Judah: Keen scholar!6  rise before your father!7  — R. Ezekiel was different, because he had [many] good deeds to his credit, for even Mar Samuel8 too stood up before him. Then what did he tell him?9  — He said thus to him: Sometimes he may come behind me;10 then do you stand up before him,11 and do not fear for my honour.
    The scholars propounded: What if his son is his teacher; must his father stand up before him? — Come and hear: For R. Joshua h. Levi said: As for me, it is not meet that I should stand up before my son, but that the honour of the Nasi's house [demands it].12 Thus the reason is that I am his teacher:13 but if he were my teacher, I would rise before him.14  — [No]. He meant thus: As for me, it is not meet that I should stand up before my son, even if he were my teacher, seeing that I am his father,but that the honour of the Nasi's house [demands it].
}

And the doubt is because of kibbud av vs. kibbud talmid chacham. And behold, in this they were equal. Moshe was obligated in honor of Yisro more, since he was his father-in-law, whom he was obligated to honor, just as David called King Shaul 'my father', as is known; that we learn from there that a person is obligated in honoring his father-in-law. And so Moshe honored Yisro. Yet opposing this is that Moshe was a talmid chacham and the teacher of all of Israel, and so Yisro was obligated in honoring him. And since they were equal in terms of precedence of honor, 'I don't know' {says Rashi / Mechilta} 'who prostrated to whom.' However, in truth, it was Moshe, who was humbler than any other person on the face of the earth; without a doubt, Moshe bowed first to Yisro. And this is what Rashi explains: I do not know who bowed to whom, for they were equal in this matter. When it says ish lerei'eihu, who is called here the ish who bowed? Say it is certainly Moshe, as is stated, 'And the man Moshe was exceedingly humble."

This is a beautiful construction. And it explains why this particular verse was selected, and why the opposing verse bolstering Yisro was not selected.

To bolster this interpretation even more, I will note that the text of the midrash itself, in the Mechilta, mentions the obligation of honoring one's father-in-law:
וישתחו וישק לו - איני יודע מי השתחווה למי או מי נשק למי, כשהוא אומר: וישאלו איש לרעהו, מי קרוי איש? 
הלא משה, שנאמר: והאיש משה, הוי אומר: לא השתחווה ולא נשק אלא משה לחמיו. 

מכאן אמרו:
 
שיהא האדם מוכן לכבוד חמיו. 
One might still ask based on this, if this is going to be a primary source for honoring one's father-in-law, with no kvod talmidei chachamim explicitly mentioned.

Despite how nice I find the construction, I must admit that I don't find it persuasive. If so, it would be a good thing to account for these two details. Why isn't Yisro a viable candidate for האיש, and why not select an earlier pasuk about Moshe being an איש?

(1) In terms of Yisro as candidate vs. Moshe as candidate, I think there is a difference between האיש משה and someone who happens to be called האיש in one particular verse. There are many people / beings who are referred to as איש. Indeed, Moshe's father עמרם is the איש who went from the house of Levi. But האיש משה midrashically equates in one's mind that איש means משה. So even if in one particular verse, יתרו is referred to as האיש -- indeed, even in relationship to his son-in-law Moshe -- it is not the same as setting up this mental equation that Ish = Moshe.

(2) In terms of the other candidate pasuk in sefer Shemot to establish Moshe as the ish, I don't think we should underestimate the force of the famous pasuk. The verse in praise of Moshe's humility is a famous one, on the tip of everyone's tongue. So it is the obvious verse to cite to establish Moshe as the ish. Yes, perhaps the more local pasuk would have served equally well, but it would not necessarily have been the one to come to mind, either in the mind of the midrashic author, or in the minds of his audience.

Along similar lines, the lengthy pasuk about Moshe being late represents the words of the people. But the pasuk about HaIsh Moshe is a narrative statement, or else from the mouth of Hashem himself. This might be a stronger basis for establishing Moshe as HaIsh.

Thursday, February 09, 2012

Difficulties due to Tzipporah's being sent away

Summary: What suffering did the tribe of Levi suffer? And how could Moshe, as a Kohen, remarry Tzippora? Rav Chaim Kanievsky asks, and answers. I also try my hand at it.

Post:

Towards the start of parashas Yisro, we read the following pasuk and Rashi:
2. So Moses' father in law, Jethro, took Zipporah, Moses' wife, after she had been sent away,ב. וַיִּקַּח יִתְרוֹ חֹתֵן מֹשֶׁה אֶת צִפֹּרָה אֵשֶׁת מֹשֶׁה אַחַר שִׁלּוּחֶיהָ:
after she had been sent away: When the Holy One, blessed be He, said to him in Midian, “Go, return to Egypt” (Exod. 4: 19), “and Moses took his wife and his sons, etc.” (Exod. 4:20), and Aaron went forth “and met him on the mount of God” (Exod. 4:27), he [Aaron] said to him [Moses], “Who are these?” He [Moses] replied, “This is my wife, whom I married in Midian, and these are my sons.” "And where are you taking them?" he [Aaron] asked. “To Egypt,” he replied. He [Aaron] retorted, “We are suffering with the first ones, and you come to add to them?” He [Moses] said to her [Zipporah], “Go home to your father.” She took her two sons and went away. — [from Mechilta]אחר שלוחיה: כשאמר לו הקב"ה במדין (שמות ד יט) לך שוב מצרימה, (שם כ) ויקח משה את אשתו ואת בניו גו' ויצא אהרן לקראתו, (שם כז) ויפגשהו בהר הא-להים. אמר לו מי הם הללו. אמר לו זו היא אשתי שנשאתי במדין ואלו בני. אמר לו והיכן אתה מוליכן. אמר לו למצרים. אמר לו על הראשונים אנו מצטערים ואתה בא להוסיף עליהם. אמר לה לכי אל בית אביך, נטלה שני בניה והלכה לה:

Rav Chaim Kanievsky, in Taama deKra, after citing this Rashi, writes:
אחר שילוחיה. פירש״י שא״ל אהרון  מה אתה מוליכן למצרים על הראשונים אנו  מצטערים ואתה בא להוסיף עליהן, וקשה הרי שבט לוי לא הי׳ בשעבוד כדאי׳ בדעת זקנים פ׳ שמות ובספר הישר ומסתמא גם נשותיהן לא עבדו ומה נתיירא

 וי״ל שא״ל על הראשונים אנו מצטערים היינו שהלוים נצטערו בצער אחיהן בנ״י ואתה בא להוסיף עליהן שיצטערו בצער אחיהן,

ובמכילתא אחר שילוחי׳ בגט וצ״ע איך החזירה והרי משה כהן הי׳ כמ״ש בזבחים ק״א ב ואיך החזיר גרושתו ואין לומר שלא החזירה דא"כ מה רצו אהרון ומרים ממנו 

וי״ל שעדיין לא נתכהן עד ז׳ ימי המילואים והחזירה בהיתר ושוב לא הי׳ צריך לגרשה כדתנן ביבמות ס״א א׳.
"And it is difficult, for behold the tribe of Levi was not within the shibud, as is stated in Daas Zekeinim parashas Shemos as well as in Sefer Hayashar. And presumably the women as well did not serve, so why should he fear?


And one can say that by “We are suffering with the first ones", this is that the Leviim were pained by the pain of their brethren, the children of Israel. And by "And you come to add to them", that they {as well} will be pained by the pain of their brethren.


And in the Mechilta, 'after she had been sent away' -- with a get. And this requires consideration, for behold, Moshe was a Kohen, as is written in Zevachim daf 101, so how could he take back his divorcee? And you cannot say that he did not remarry her, what did Aharon and Miriam want of him?


And there is to say that he had not yet become a Kohen before the seven days of miluim, and so he remarried her permissibly. And afterwards, he was not required to divorce her, as we learn in the Mishna in Yevamos 61a."

In terms of the first portion of this dvar Torah, namely the resolution that the suffering is one of empathy, it is a beautiful message that shevet Levi was empathizing with their fellow Israelites. Even so, to resolution seems a bit farfetched. And would a family really split up so that the wife and children would not be in close enough proximity to feel empathy for the suffering of others? That part does not work out with such a beautiful message?

There is surely an easier and more flowing resolution out there. I would propose the following two possibilities.

(a) This midrashic explanation, about Aharon and bringing more people to Egypt to suffer, is drawn from the Mechilta and is cited by Rashi. It does not work out consistently with Sefer HaYashar, which might be an extremely late midrash, and with the Daas Zekeinim miBaalei HaTosafot, which is post-Rashi. So? Sometimes midrashim conflict with each other, because they interpret pesukim in different ways. Rather than reinterpreting the Mechilta or Rashi in a forced manner, I would just leave these later sources as contradicting the earlier ones.

Sometimes a midrashic conclusion or interpretation is more "obvious", and sometimes it is less obvious. The idea that Shevet Levi was not subjugated strikes me as non-obvious, and so I would be reluctant to assume that the Mechilta maintained this idea, absent any explicit evidence that it did. And so the question never arises.

(b) Even if they did not have to physically labor, the tribe of Levi was still subject to Pharaoh's cruel decrees. Consider that Moshe, who was of Shevet Levi, had to be hidden, because of the decree of casting male babies into the Nile. Or the midrash about babies being placed in the wall, or about Pharaoh bathing in the blood of Israelite babies because of his ailment. Even if Shevet Levi were not compelled to work, they presumably were not allowed to leave Egypt, and were not in an elevated position in Egyptian society. So there was plenty of other "suffering" to go around, other than empathic suffering.

In terms of the explanation that he had sent her out with a get, it is indeed found in the Mechilta, immediately following the explanation cited by Rashi:
[יח, ב] ויקח יתרו חותן משה את צפורה אשת משה אחר שלוחיה - ר' יהושע אומר: 
אחר שנפטרה הימנו בגט. 
נאמר כאן שלוח 
ונאמר להלן: שילוח. 

מה שלוח האמור להלן גט, 
אף כאן גט. 

ר' אלעזר המודעי אומר: 
מאחר שנפטרה ממנו במאמר, שבשעה שאמר הקב"ה למשה: לך הוצא את עמי בני ישראל ממצרים, שנאמר:לכה נא ואשלחך אל פרעה, באותה שעה נטל אשתו ושני בניו והיה מוליכם למצרים, שנאמר: ויקח משה את אשתו ואת בניו וירכיבם על החמור וישב ארצה מצרים. באותה שעה אמר לאהרן: לך לקראת משה, יצא לקראת משה וחבקו ונשקו. 
א"ל: משה, היכן היית כל השנים הללו? 
אמר לו: במדין. 
א"ל: מה טף ונשים אלו עמך? 
א"ל: אשתי ובני. 
ולאן אתה מוליכם? למצרים. 
א"ל: על הראשונים אנו מצטערים ועכשיו נצטער גם באלו?! 
באותה שעה אמר לצפורה: לכי לבית אביך. 
באותה שעה הלכה לבית אביה ונטלה שני בניה, לכך נאמר: אחר שלוחיה. 
There is a contrast being made here, in the dispute between Rabbi Yehoshua and Rabbi Eleazar Hamoda'i, as to the nature of Tzippora's being sent away. Was it a mere sending away to some location, or was it divorce.

But though the Mechilta uses the term "with a get", that does not necessarily mean that we are dealing with halacha and halachic repercussions. It does not mean that the midrashist was assuming that Moshe kept the entirety of Torah, outside of Eretz Yisrael, and that this was a valid get. Yes, it was a divorce.

If it was a divorce, how could he remarry her if he was a kohen? Well, there are a number of possibilities:

  1. The one I like best is the one suggested by Rav Kanievsky, above. He was not yet a kohen.
  2. Perhaps the status of kohen did not extend to this level of prohibition for Moshe.
  3. The divorce was prior to Mattan Torah. And so Moshe and Tzippora had newly minted status, as geirim. (But how could a kohen marry a giyores?)
  4. Yisro's arrival, and thus the remarriage, was prior to Mattan Torah.
  5. Perhaps according to R' Eleazar Hamoda'i, Aharon and Miryam were not upset about remarrying of Tzippora, but about his initial divorce, something which was now undoable. Or they were complaining about the Kushite queen, Moshe married, mentioned in a late midrash.

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