Showing posts with label early repolarization. Show all posts
Showing posts with label early repolarization. Show all posts

Tuesday, September 15, 2020

A 58 year old collapses in the hot sun

A 58 yo male was out working in the hot sun for 2-3 hours. He stated he almost passed out, and bystanders called 911. They give him water with salt, as he thought he was dehydrated.
When medics arrived, he was alert, sweating, and felt weak.  He walked to the ambulance for evaluation.  He denied headache, chest pain, nausea / vomiting and dyspnea. 

He had no cardiac history, meds, or risk factors. Vitals were obtained, and placed on cardiac monitor, including this 12 lead prehospital ECG: 
QTc =  320 ms; (QTc = 374 ms)
The computer measures the ST Elevation at the J-point for you.
Here it is 4.08 mm in V2, and 2.84 in V3, as well as 2.34 mm in V4.

This looks worrisome for anterior MI, and with ST elevation in aVL and reciprocal ST depression in inferior leads, it looks like a proximal LAD occlusion.

Or is it normal variant ST Elevation (often known as early repolarization?)

This has been thoroughly studied by me and Dr. Emre Aslanger (an interventionalist) in a series of articles:
Calculate the 4-variable formula at MDcalc, or get the iPhone app ("SubtleSTEMI"), or the Android app ("ECG Smith")


In these studies differentiating Subtle LAD occlusion from normal variant ST Elevation, we excluded patients with ECGs that had "obvious" LAD occlusion.

This included:
Absence of upward concavity in V2-V6, even though it is found in 40-50% of LAD occlusion
STE at the J point of 5 mm or more
Inferior or precordial ST depression
Terminal QRS distortion (absence of S-wave and J-wave) in V2 or V3.
Q-waves in any of V2-V4

In this ECG:
There is no STE at the J-point of 5 mm
There is upward concavity in V2-V6  
There is no Terminal QRS distortion.
There are no Q-waves.
There is no ST depression in precordial leads.

Since there is ST depression in inferior leads
it is hazardous to use the formulas to differentiate normal variant from LAD occlusion. 
 
This patient would have been excluded from the study because it is an "non-subtle" (or obvious) LAD occlusion.

Nevertheless, let's do the calculation just to see what the value is: 



4-variable formula variables:

R-wave amplitude in V4 (RAV4) = 13 mm
Total QRS amplitude in V2 = 15 mm
QTc = 374 
ST elevation at 60 ms after the J-point (STE60V3) = 6 mm

Formula value = 20.07, which is substantially above the most accurate cutpoint of 18.2, and strongly suggests LAD occlusion. 

Note on the cutpoint: Above a cutpoint of 18.2, the formula was 89% sensitive and 95% specific in the derivation (and 83% sensitive and 88% specific in the external validation study). In the derivation, the specificity only gets above 97% at a value of 19.0).  

As with all dichotomous rules, the closer the value is to the cutpoint, the less accurate.  If there is an overall specificity of 88% for a value above 18.2, that specificity will be less for values close to 18.2 and higher for values far above 18.2.

Here is the simplified formula (QT = 320, or 8 mm): 
(R-wave amplitude in lead V4 +QRS amplitude in V2) minus
(QT interval in millimeters (not milliseconds!)  +  STE60 in V3).  

QT = 320 ms = 8 mm

Calculate: (13 + 15) - (8 + 6) = 28 - 14 = 14.

The most accurate cutoff is 12, with values above 12 suggesting LAD occlusion, and values below 12 suggesting benign ST Elevation.

Case Continued

At the Emergency Department, a cardiologist reviewed and activated the Cath lab for an exploratory cath.

The
cath was negative. Troponins were and remained negative. Patient left AMA after cath.

Angiogram:
Dominance: Right
LM: A 5 mm vessel which bifurcates into the LAD and LCx coronary artery. The LM coronary artery is free of disease 
LAD: A type 3 LAD, which gives rise to usual septal perforators and diagonal branches. The LAD and its major branches are free of disease
LCX: A non-dominant vessel that is moderate caliber in size, which gives rise to several OM branches and continues to complete its course in the AV grove as a small vessel. The LCx and its major branches are free of disease
RCA: A dominant vessel witch gives rise to the PDA and PLA. The RCA and its major branches are free of disease


Learning Points

1. Pay attention to the inclusion criteria for the formula.  

    A. Inclusion: STE of at least 1 mm at the J-point in at least 1 of V2-V4 (measured relative to the PQ junction (QRS onset)

2. Pay attention to the exclusion criteria for the formula. These are features which are very rare in benign ST elevation

    B. Exclusion: Wide QRS (such as LBBB or RBBB), STE of at least 5 mm in just one lead, convex ST segment in any of leads V2-V6, Q-waves in any of V2-V4, inferior or precordial ST depression, Terminal QRS distortion in either V2 or V3.

3.  When a patient does not have a high pretest probability, a "positive" ECG has a much lower positive predictive value (this patient had no CP or SOB, no risk factors, and had a good explanation for his symptoms).  This is why our prehospital protocol is: 1) computer diagnoses ***STEMI*** AND patient has chest pain.

4. The specificity of the formula is not perfect.  The specificity of the simplified formula is 92%.  The specificity of the 4-variable formula was 95%, with specificity above 97% if the value was greater than 19 (here it was 20.07).  The specificity of the 4-variable formula in the validation at a cutoff of 18.2 was 87%, and would be higher for a value of 20.07.

5.  I do not use a negative formula value to dismiss an ECG that I am worried about.  I use it to identify an LAD occlusion that I otherwise would have missed.

6. When the value is high and you do not believe that it is LAD occlusion, I recommend very intensive evaluation using serial ECGs, troponins, and (this is best) high quality contrast echocardiogram.

7. Even 58 year old patients may have marked normal variant ST elevation.



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MY Comment by KEN GRAUER, MD (9/15/2020):

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I like this case — because it highlights that as helpful as Dr. Smith’s formulas may be — they are not perfect. As Dr. Smith emphasizes in his 3rd Learning Point — “I do not use a negative formula value to dismiss an ECG that I am worried about."

  • I limit my comments to WHY the “correct answer” in today’s case was to activate the cath lab — even though the cath turned out to be normal. To facilitate discussion — I’ve reproduced the initial ECG obtained in the field in Figure-1.


Figure-1: The initial ECG in this case (See text).




The patient in today’s case was a previously healthy 58yo man with overexertion after working outside in the hot sun for several hours. He was dehydrated and “almost passed out” — but did not complain of chest pain.


MY Thoughts on the HISTORY: A history of “chest pain” is not reported in all patients who are found to have myocardial infarction. That said, as per Dr. Smith — the pre-test probability of acute MI in today’s case (ie, the likelihood of acute MI based just on history before you even look at the ECG!) — is relatively low. This is because this patient was previously healthy — he did not have chest pain — and there was a good explanation for the symptoms he had.

  • That said — this patient is of a certain age (ie, 58yo) — he did almost pass out, and he was both weak and diaphoretic after the incident. Therefore — although pre-test probability of acute MI is clearly much less than if the history had been new-onset chest pain — there clearly is a possibility of MI associated with non-chest-pain equivalent symptoms.
  • PEARL #1: As per Dr. Smith — the fact that the “prevalence” of disease (ie, the incidence of acute MI among patients with this type of presentation) is lower — ECG abnormalities will be less specific for acute OMI. This is known as Bayes’ Theorem. Our interpretation of the findings in ECG #1 remains the same — BUT, the relatively low prevalence of disease simply means that abnormal ECG findings may be less accurate for predicting acute OMI, than if identical ECG findings were seen in a patient with a much more worrisome history of new-onset, cardiac-sounding chest pain.


PEARL #2: Not all patients with acute MI report chest pain. The Framingham studies from many years ago taught us that the incidence of Silent MI” is as high as ~30% of all MIs.

  • The interesting part of this data was that in about half of this 30% (ie, ~15% of all patients with MI) — patients found on yearly follow-up ECGs to manifest clear evidence of infarction had NO symptoms at all — therefore truly “silent” MIs.
  • In the other half of this 30% (ie, in ~15% of all patients with MI) — patients found on follow-up ECG to have had infarction did not have chest pain — but they did have “something else” thought to be associated with their MI.
  • The most common “something else” symptom was shortness of breath. Other non-chest-pain equivalent symptoms included — abdominal pain — “flu-like” symptoms (ie, myalgias; not “feeling” good) — excessive fatigue — mental status changes (ie, as might be found in an elderly patient wandering from home).
  • BOTTOM Line: Be aware of the entity of “Silent MI” — which can either be completely “silent” — or, associated with a non-chest-pain equivalent symptom. The incidence of both types of silent MI is more common than is sometimes appreciated.


MY Thoughts on ECG #1: The rhythm in ECG #1 is sinus at 85-90/minute. All intervals and the axis are normal. Criteria for chamber enlargement are not seen (although the S wave is cut off in lead V3). Regarding Q-R-S-T Changes:

  • There are no Q waves.
  • R wave progression is normal — with transition (where S wave depth exceeds R wave height) occurring normally between leads V3-to-V4.
  • As noted by Dr. Smith — there is significant ST elevation (especially in leads V2 and V3, attaining 4 mm in V3). In all — ST elevation is noted in no less than 8 leads (ie, leads I,aVL; and V1-thru-V6).
  • There is ST-T wave depression in lead III — with a suggestion of this also in lead aVF.


IMPRESSION (Putting It All Together): This 58yo man does have new symptoms — albeit the lack of chest pain and explainable circumstances surrounding his presenting symptoms suggest a lower pre-test likelihood of disease.

  • There is no prior tracing for comparison.
  • The amount of ST elevation seen in leads V2 and V3 is more than is usually seen with repolarization variants. This is accompanied by definite ST elevation in lead aVL — which is often seen with acute proximal LAD occlusion.
  • The shape of the depressed ST-T wave in lead III is the mirror-image opposite of the shape of the elevated ST-T wave in lead aVL. Concern that this is a “real” finding is heightened by subtle-but-real ST segment straightening, with a hint of ST depression in lead aVF.


BOTTOM Line: IF we had to judge this case solely on the history and ECG #1 — then cardiac cath is clearly indicated. There simply is no way to rule out acute ongoing OMI from proximal LAD occlusion from this single ECG alone.

  • Sometimes the cath will be normal, as it was in today’s case. That’s why caths are done! If all cath lab activations that we order are positive — then we are not ordering enough cath lab activations. Of course, our goal is to limit the number of negative catheterizations that we order as much as possible — but it’s important to appreciate that the negative cardiac cath in today’s case did provide important diagnostic information.
  • As we’ve discussed many times on Dr. Smith’s ECG Blog — among additional tools available in the ED for sorting out which patients with tracings such as the one we see in ECG #1 need prompt cath include: — serial high-sensitivity troponin values — serial ECGs — searching for a prior ECG for comparison purposes — bedside Echo in the ED during chest pain. To know which of these tools are needed for which patients before deciding on the need for prompt cath — “Ya gotta be there...”.


Some Final THOUGHTS on Today’s Case: There are some important lessons to be learned from today’s case. I’ll add the following to the Learning Points put forth by Dr. Smith above.

  • In answer to Dr. Smith’s rhetorical question = “Is there an upper age limit to where we shouldn’t suspect a repolarization variant?” — My ambulatory experience of interpreting all ECGs from 35 medical providers over 30 years taught me that repolarization variants can occasionally be seen in patients in the age range of the 58-year old man in today’s case. And, repolarization variants can be seen in both males and females of any race.
  • I indicated that there was no evidence for chamber enlargement in ECG #1. But there are a number of voltage criteria for LVH that utilize S wave depth in lead V3 — and the S wave in lead V3 is cut off! (See My Comment at the bottom of the June 20, 2020 post in Dr. Smith’s Blog). As a result — we have NO idea if voltage for LVH might not be present. And IF the S wave in lead V3 was significantly deeper than what we see in ECG #1 — then the amount of ST elevation that we see in leads V2 and V3 might not be disproportionately increased.
  • Several ECG features in ECG #1 are consistent with a repolarization variant. These include: i) Upward-sloping (ie, “smiley”-configuration) of the ST segments that are elevated; ii) Presence of this same shape of ST elevation in so many (8 of 12) leads, with J-point notching characteristic of repolarization variants in 4 leads (ie, leads I, aVL, V5 and V6); andiii) Lack of reciprocal ST-T wave depression in the 1 inferior lead with a predominantly positive QRS complex ( = lead II).
  • That said — Even if we attribute all of the ST elevation we see in ECG #1 to a “repolarization variant” — one usually does not see mirror-image opposite ST-T depression in lead III (compared to lead aVL) as we see here. And while true that both leads III and aVF may at times normally manifest T wave inversion when the QRS in these leads is predominantly negative — we still usually do not see ST depression (as in lead III here) or ST straightening (as in aVF). THEREFORE — I would have really liked to see a follow-up ECG on this patient after resting up, electrolyte repletion and rehydration, to see if this resulted in resolution of these ST-T wave changes in leads III and aVF.
  • At least the providers knew that the cath was negative before this patient signed out AMA. Had the patient snuck out before his cath — it would have been incumbent on ED staff to ensure the patient was fully aware of potential consequences of leaving.
  • Finally — Had the patient not left AMA, and had repeat ECG after rest and rehydration shown identical findings as seen in ECG #1 — I would have made a miniaturized copy of his ECG for him to carry in his wallet to show providers in the event that he ever again presented to an ED with new symptoms.





Tuesday, May 26, 2020

A middle-aged male with chest pain

A 40-something male presented with chest pressure.

Here is his triage ECG:
What do you think?


















The triage physician suspected that this was a false positive due to benign normal variant ST Elevation (Often called "Early Repolarization," though many are trying to get away from that terminology for this morphology)

When I saw the ECG I immediately thought that this was not STEMI.

I applied the Early Repol/LAD occlusion formula.
See this post for explanation and references:

12 Example Cases of Use of 3- and 4-variable formulas to differentiate normal STE from subtle LAD occlusion


Remember it can only be applied when NONE of these are present:
1. Presence of a straight or convex ST segment in just ONE of V2-V6
2. STE of at least 5 mm in one lead of V2-V4
3. ANY ST depression in ANY lead, reciprocal or not
4. Any T-wave inversion
5. Any Q-wave in V2-V4
6. Any terminal QRS distortion (absence of both an S-wave and J-wave (notch) in either V2 or V3
If any of these are present, it is NOT normal variant, and so the formula should not be applied.


ST Elevation at 60 ms after the J-point in lead V3 = 4 mm
R-wave amplitude in V4 = 20 mm
QRS amplitude in V2 = 10 mm
Computerized QTc was 365 ms (this is the feature of this ECG which is most potent -- it is a very short QTc for acute MI.  In our series of subtle LAD occlusions, the mean QTc was 420 ms, vs. 390 for normal variant STE) 

Formula value = 16.36 (most accurate cutpoint is 18.2; a value below 17.0 is 97% sensitive and a value above 19.0 is 97% specific.

I generally give this warning:  
--Use the formula to help you make the diagnosis of LAD occlusion when you did not suspect it.  
--Do NOT use the formula to dissuade you from the diagnosis of LAD occlusion.

I was already convinced by looking at the ECG that this was a false positive, so the formula value reassured me.

Then I went to look for a previous ECG, and found one:

Almost exactly the same


History revealed that the symptoms had been going on constantly all day, so an initial troponin would be positive if this was a true positive ST elevation.

The first trop returned undetectable, as did the 2nd trop.

We discharged the patient with "atypical chest pain."
___________________________

Ken wrote below about all the features that make this unlikely to be an acute MI.
However, what he wrote are features specific to acute MI, but not sensitive.  These features do NOT make acute MI unlikely by themselves, they make is less likely.

In our series of 355 consecutive LAD occlusions, 143 had none of the features that Ken discusses:

LAD occlusions were excluded from the study if they had any of the following:
1. Presence of a straight or convex ST segment in just ONE of V2-V6. (There must be concavity)
2. STE of at least 5 mm in one lead of V2-V4
3. ANY ST depression in ANY lead, reciprocal or not
4. Any T-wave inversion
5. Any Q-wave in V2-V4
6. Any terminal QRS distortion (absence of both an S-wave and J-wave (notch) in either V2 or V3


So when you apply the formula, it must be ONLY to ECGs that have NONE of the above.

If they have any ONE of the above, then you must assume that it is LAD occlusion because normal variant STE in V2-V4 has NONE of them.

Finally, we looked at degree of upward concavity in V2-V4 and it did not add ANY additional value to the multivariable formula.  It does have univariate value, but does not help at all if you are already using the formula, which is far better.  In other words, unless there is a straight or convex ST segment, in which case you must assume it is not normal, the SHAPE of the ST Segment has no further added value over the formula, except insofar as it makes you recognize normal variant more easily.



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MY Comment by KEN GRAUER, MD (5/26/2020):
===================================
While contemplating My Comment for this case — I decided to concentrate on ST segment elevation SHAPE. So, I looked through previous cases I commented on for Dr. Smith’s ECG Blog — and I came across My Comment in the June 7, 2019 post, in which the points I’m about to make on today’s case are virtually identical to what I wrote in that 2019 case. Clearly, this is an “ECG Theme” that repeats itself.
  • For clarity — I again show the initial ECG in the ED for today’s case (Figure-1).

Dr. Smith gave “the Answer” to today’s case above — namely, that the ECG in Figure-1 is unlikely to indicate acute coronary syndrome.
  • QUESTION: In addition to a very low (totally normal) value in Dr. Smith’s Formula — WHAT are the ECG findings that suggested to me that ECG #1 was less likely to indicate acute OMI?

Figure-1: The initial ECG in the ED for today’s case (See text).



My THOUGHTS on ECG #1: There is a significant amount of artifact, especially in the limb leads.
  • PEARL #1 — While the amount of artifact in this tracing is not enough to prevent accurate interpretation of this ECG — knowing how to quickly determine which extremity is the cause of the artifact (due to tremor, a faulty lead connection/inadequate skin contact, etc.) is helpful, because this may expedite correction, which may be important when artifact does impede interpretation. In ECG #1 — baseline artifact is most prominent in leads I, II and aVR in the limb leads, with significantly less baseline disturbance in the chest leads. This suggests that the right arm is most likely the source of this artifact. (NOTE: For a quick primer on how to recognize which extremity is the cause of artifact — Please SEE the 1st bullet in Observation #2 in My Comment for the September 27, 2019 post in Dr. Smith’s ECG blog).

Returning to my Descriptive Analysis of ECG #1:
  • The rhythm in ECG #1 is sinus at ~60/minute. All intervals (PR/QRS/QTc) are normal. The frontal plane axis is normal at about +15 degrees. There is no chamber enlargement.

Regarding Q-R-S-T Changes:
  • There are narrow septal Q waves in leads I and aVL.
  • Transition (ie, R Wave Progression) occurs early — as the R wave becomes taller than the S wave is deep as soon as between leads V1-to-V2.
  • Regarding ST-T Wave Changes — The limb leads look fairly unremarkable. Although difficult to be certain due to the baseline artifact — there appears to be slight, concave-up ST elevation in leads I and aVL (and possibly also in lead II— without any reciprocal ST depression in the inferior leads. The ST-T wave in lead III is flat. This does not look acute.
  • There is definite J-point ST elevation in each of the chest leads. The amount of ST elevation is minimal in V6 — and maximal in leads V1, V2, V3 (up to 2-3 mm). The shape of ST elevation seen is consistently concave-up (similar to the shape of the gently curved RED lines in these leads — seen in Figure-2).
  • There is prominent J-point notching in leads V4, V5, V6 (BLUE arrows).

Figure-2: I’ve labeled key ECG findings seen in ECG #1 (See text).



Clinical IMPRESSION: WHY I thought the above findings in ECG #1 were less likely to be acute:
  • DISCLAIMER: No set of ECG features is perfect for ruling out acute OMI on the basis of a single ECG. Clearly, additional assessment will often be needed in the patient who presents with new symptoms — which is the situation for today's case (ie, the 40-something man in today's case did present with "chest pressure" which apparently was new). As a result — additional evaluation would be advised (ie, more history; comparison with a baseline ECG; serial tracings; stat Echo; troponin, etc.) — before comfort could be attained that no acute ischemic event is ongoing. THAT SAID — I thought the sum total of ECG findings in today’s case suggested that acute cath lab activation would not be indicated on the basis of this initial ECG! 
  • NOTE: My rationale below is based on qualitative findings. I did not use Dr. Smith's multivariate formula in my decision-making process.

PEARL #2 — ECG Findings that reduce the likelihood of an acute process in ECG #1 include the following:
  • Lack of any reciprocal ST depression! While true that a significant percentage of acute anterior MIs do not manifest reciprocal ST depression in the inferior leads (especially when there is mid-to-distal rather than proximal LAD occlusion) — the ST elevation seen in ECG #1 begins in lead V1! As a result — I would normally expect to see at least some reciprocal inferior lead ST depression if there was acute proximal LAD OMI.
  • The shape of the ST elevation that we see in the chest leads is uniformly concave-up (similar to the shape of the gently curved RED lines in these leads). While this upward-concavity (ie, smiley”-configuration) shape by itself does not rule out the possibility of acute ischemia — this type of ST segment shaping is often seen in repolarization variants. In contrast — straightening of the ST segment and/or ST segment coving (ie, frowny”-configuration) shape is much more commonly associated with acute ischemic heart disease.
  • There is prominent J-point notching in leads V4, V5, V6 (BLUE arrows). Especially when seen in multiple leads in association with benign-appearing (ie, concave-up) ST elevation — this type of J-point notching often occurs with repolarization variants.
  • The 2 q waves noted in this tracing are small and narrow — and, they are seen in lateral leads I and aVL. Normal “septal” q waves (attributable to the normal left-to-right initial vector of septal activation) may commonly be seen in any of the lateral leads (I, aVL; V4,V5,V6) — so the appearance of these q waves that are seen in ECG #1 is perfectly consistent with these being normal “septal” q waves.
  • A normal (if not relatively short) QTc interval. I estimate the QTc to be ~370 msec — which clearly is on the shorter side of the normal QTc range. In contrast — acute MI is often associated with QTc prolongation.
  • Prominent R wave forces in the chest leads. Acute anterior OMI often manifests reduced anterior R wave amplitude. The opposite is present here — as the R wave becomes tall and predominates as early as in lead V2.
  • Finally — There is a lack of localization! Counting the slight ST elevation in leads I, II and aVL — no less than 9 out of 12 leads in ECG #1 manifest ST elevation. Acute ischemic heart disease is far more likely to localize — instead of manifesting a consistent concave-up shape for the ST-T waves that we see here in 9 of the 12 leads in this tracing.

BOTTOM Line: I’ll repeat my “disclaimer” that I wrote above:
  • DISCLAIMER: No set of ECG features is perfect for ruling out acute OMI on the basis of a single ECG. Additional assessment may be needed before full comfort can be attained that no acute ischemic event is ongoing. Even if the ECG is unremarkable — sometimes cardiac cath will still be indicated to rule out an acute process. THAT SAID — I thought the overall picture, based on the combination of findings in ECG #1 was less likely to represent acute ischemic heart disease.
  • For additional practice in applying these concepts — Please CHECK OUT the June 7, 2019 post on Dr. Smith’s ECG Blog.

Our THANKS to Dr. Smith for presenting this case.


Friday, April 19, 2019

A Young Man with Sharp Chest pain


Suppose this patient had chest pain.  What would you diagnose?


What is the diagnosis?

















OK.  I lied, just so you could assess your reaction to this ECG.

In fact, this patient did NOT have chest pain.  But some day he may show up in an ED with chest wall pain, and he might erroneously be diagnosed with pericarditis.

This is just classic early repol.  This was recorded in an 18 year old otherwise healthy young man who just had a seizure.  There were no chest symptoms at all.  This was his baseline ECG.

Notice:

1. There is diffuse ST elevation, in all myocardial territories.
2. STE is greater in lead II than III
3. There is no reciprocal ST depression, especially none in aVL
4. There is some PR depression, but less than 0.5 mm
5. Spodick's sign is present
6. There are prominent J-waves in almost every lead.

ECGs like this are often attributed to pericarditis, when the vast majority of the time they are simply normal early repolarization.

Here is a great case where such bias led to poor management:

31 Year Old Male with RUQ Pain and a History of Pericarditis. Submitted by a Med Student, with Great Commentary on Bias!



It is true that early repolarization, as defined by J-waves in inferior and lateral leads, is associated with a higher long term risk of ventricular fibrillation.  But it has no bearing on ED management.




===================================
Comment by KEN GRAUER, MD (4/19/2019):
===================================
My initial impression on seeing the ECG posted in this case (which I’ve reproduced for clarity in Figure-1) — was that despite the history we were given ( = chest pain) — that the tracing most probably represented Early Repolarization. That said — I was admittedly not 100% certain of this. I’ll explain my thought process by use of 4 words: iHistoryiiRubiiiProportionalityandivSuperimposition.

Figure-1: The ECG posted in this case (See text).
=================
My thought process:
  • The HISTORY: There’s a lot to the history when considering acute pericarditis — including age of the patient — clinical likelihood of acute viral pericarditis ( = by far, the most common cause of acute pericarditis in an ED or out-patient centervs pericarditis secondary to some other underlying disorder — and, the specific nature of the type of chest pain that the patient is having. I’ve summarized some factors to consider in this regard in Figure-2.
=================

Figure-2: Factors to consider in obtaining the history in a patient who might have acute pericarditis (Excerpted from Grauer K: ECG-2014-ePub).
=================
  • The RUB: During the past 9+ years that I’ve been interpreting too-numerous-to-count ECGs on a daily basis on various internet ECG forums — the overwhelming majority (I’d estimate well over 90%) of ECG cases posted in which acute pericarditis is a diagnostic consideration, fail to even mention cardiac auscultation in listening for detection of a pericardial friction rub. When the pertinent negative of “No rub heard” is not even mentioned in the clinical presentation — it usually means that the clinician did not specifically listen for a rub. While true that acute pericarditis may not necessarily manifest an audible rub at the time you examine the patient — sometimes it does !!! And, IF you are able to hear a definite pericardial friction rub — then you have made a definitive diagnosis within seconds.
Figure-3: Factors to consider regarding physical examination in a patient who might have acute pericarditis (Excerpted from Grauer K: ECG-2014-ePub).
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  • PROPORTIONALITY: The numerical amount of ST elevation seen in multiple leads in Figure-1 is impressive (many leads showing ≥3-4mm of ST elevation). That said — when you consider the markedly increased QRS amplitude evident in so many leads (which I have counted and noted in BLUE letters) — proportionally, the relative amount of ST elevation in Figure-1 is not that great. Together with the prominent J-point notching we see in so many leads — the appearance of ST-T waves in this tracing could be perfectly consistent with a repolarization abnormality.
  • SUPERIMPOSITION: One factor that I see all-too-often-ignored — is that a patient may start out with an early repolarization picture — and superimposed on this, then develop a case of acute pericarditis. I have NO idea how to rule out this possibility simply by looking at the ECG shown in Figure-1. Finding a prior ECG on the patient may help — but the caveat exists that ST-T wave changes of early repolarization may vary when serial ECGs are obtained. This is why without considering the other factors mentioned above — I would not be 100% certain that the ECG in Figure-1 was simply a repolarization variant. This ECG certainly has many features consistent with a repolarization variant — and acute pericarditis is a far less common entity. But more than just a single ECG is needed when the goal is to be sure that the patient does not have pericarditis.



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