Critique of Vanhoozer's Hermeneutic
I have been wandering around Vanhoozer's Is There a Meaning in This Text? I found many of his presentations of postmodern and late modern philosophers helpful in the first half. But his "solutions" are, in my opinion, wishful thinking.
1. I would identify the book's fundamental rationale and hypothesis something like the following:
a. Alvin Plantinga says Christian philosophers need to get on with their own agendas (in other words, who cares what the philosophers of the first half of this book think, I'm going to ignore them and just tell you what I think), p. 199.
b. So here's what I (Vanhoozer) think: God designed words for communication between people, so you've got to listen to what a speaker is saying (esp. 205-206). Therefore, a Christian has to link the meaning of a text to the meaning the author intended.
Or as I would put it, you can't ignore the original meaning because, well, you just can't.
Thank you Vanhoozer for giving us yet another example of modernist evangelicals showing that they can swim in the waters of people doing deep thinking, well summarize and analyze what those others think only then to given the conclusion you started with in as sophisticated language as possible. ..more of the cop-out artistry I've come to expect from modernist evangelical scholars. 467 pages of rough sledding summarized in a circular argument.
2. Vanhoozer and sensus plenior
Here's the real rub: the New Testament authors often couldn't have cared less about the original meaning. This deconstructs Vanhoozer's fundamental claim. When we find the original meaning of Scripture, we find that the original meaning was not the emphasis of the biblical authors. At times they ignored it when they must certainly have known it. At other times their operative paradigms probably led them not to be aware of what the original meaning actually was.
On the one hand, Vanhoozer: "The divine intention does not contravene the intention of the human author but rather supervenes on it" (265). "[T]he Spirit is tied to the written Word as significance is tied to meaning... the role of the Spirit is to serve as the Spirit of significance and thus to apply meaning, not to change it" (265). In other words, the Holy Spirit is not allowed to make the words mean anything contrary to their original meaning (boy, I hope the Holy Spirit is reading all this so He doesn't disobey!)
So how close is Paul to the original meaning of the Hagar-Ishmael passages when he makes Hagar symbolize the literal Jerusalem on earth and Sarah symbolize the heavenly one (Gal. 4)? How close is Matthew to the original meaning of any passage when he sees Jesus growing up in the city of Nazareth as a fulfillment of more than one set of words in the Old Testament that had nothing to do with such a (at that time) non-existent village (Matt. 2:23). He seems to be building off of the similarity between the Hebrew word branch (nezer) in Isaiah 11:1 (which has nothing to do with a city). I think he is also playing of the words of the prophecy about Samson ("he will be called a Nazirite"), but this has nothing to do with Jesus, since he was not a Nazirite, as Samson was and it still has nothing to do with a village. In short, you could only see the fulfillment in Matthew 2:23 as highly interested in the original meaning of these if you, well, just have to and refuse actually to listen to the text itself.
Modernist evangelicals at this point apparently just have to, because ultimately it isn't really the text that's important to them but their idea of the text. And they will feel free (subconsciously) to twist the meaning of the text and shove their presuppositions down its throat to make sure their paradigm works. The best modernist evangelical cop-out I've heard on this one is relayed by Ben Witherington, maybe the village of Nazareth was founded by descendents of David who looked to the future coming of the "Branch," the Messiah. Ingenious! No one ever should accuse such modernist evangelicals of stupidity. Au contraire. The only way to prop up such a failed paradigm is to be a genius.
An example of a biblical author probably not knowing he is reading out of context but doing so paradigmatically is perhaps Matthew 2:23: "a virgin will conceive and bear a son." Matthew's paradigm may have led him to think this verse was literally in its first sense in reference to Jesus. But in the original context of Isaiah, this was a sign to Ahaz in the eighth century BC. If the sign didn't come until 700 years after, it wasn't much of a sign to Ahaz. It must originally have referred to (I think) an heir to the throne, probably a child of Ahaz (perhaps Hezekiah). With this example, Vanhoozer might argue for some supervening meaning, a somewhat allegorical one.
3. "The context that yields this maximal sense is the canon, taken as a unified communcations act" (265). But Vanhoozer's token canonical suggestion will fail just as Childs' did. Even the text of Scripture as a whole will need to be informed by later church history to take on a truly canonical, Christian sense. The canon is a product of the church and the properly canonical sense of Scripture must take into account the definitions, prioritizations, and significations of the consensus ecclesiae to get Vanhoozer where he is really trying to go.
Dialog?
